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Exam Code: ST0-114
Exam Name: Symantec (PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Advanced user mode for PGP NetShare is the recommended method to encrypt all files.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Verified Directory is required to receive encrypted mail.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following PGP Desktop utilities has a command line interface?
A. PGP NetShare
B. PGP Zip
C. PGP Virtual Disk
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Dictionaries can be used to add users to Consumer Groups or used for Mail Policy processing, but
they cannot be used to configure a Consumer Policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Bob, an external user, has just downloaded and installed PGP Satellite from a PGP Universal Server
managing the example.com domain. Which of the following statements is true?
A. PGP Satellite will encrypt all email Bob sends to any domain.
B. PGP Satellite will only encrypt email that Bob sends to the example.com domain.
C. Bob is added to the example.com PGP Universal Server as an internal user.
D. It is now too late for Bob to change his delivery preference.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 PGP Desktop is required to use the Out Of Mail Stream (OOMS) feature of PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 ADKs are only used for Messaging.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 What methods can be used by Web Messengers to authenticate to an inbox?
A. LDAP, Dictionary or Passphrase
B. Token, Passphrase, or TPM
C. Passphrase, LDAP, Radius
D. Ignition key, LDAP, Radius
Answer: C

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NO.11 It is possible to prevent a folder from being PGP NetShare protected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.14 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.16 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the newest standard for secure message processing?
A. PGP/MIME
B. PGP Partitioned
C. SMIME
D. RSA
Answer: A

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NO.18 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.19 When Bob receives his first Web Messenger message, one of his options for securing future
messages could be "PGP Universal Satellite".
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 There are several administrative levels available for logging into PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-134
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.2 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.3 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

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NO.4 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.9 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.11 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.12 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.17 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-174
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 Technical Assessment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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NO.3 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page athttps://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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NO.20 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)
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Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.2 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.18 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-151
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11 Technical Assessment )
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Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer needs to map internal requirements documents to mandates and controls. The
customer also needs to track who has read these documents.
Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 module should the customer use?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Assessment Manager
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Risk Manager
C. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Vulnerability Manager
D. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Policy Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 roles are valid for exception
management?
(Select two.)
A. Exception Administrator
B. Exception Approver
C. Exception Auditor
D. Exception Owner
E. Exception Requestor
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 In which two ways are the Assess Procedural Controls business objectives met by Symantec
Control Compliance Suite 11.0? (Select two.)
A. The Response Assessment Module provides a set of standards to check against user policies.
B. The Response Assessment Module contains procedural controls to integrate content and
directive.
C. The Response Assessment Module integrates with the policy module.
D. The Response Assessment Module is an external data application.
E. The Response Assessment Module is an entitlement assessment application.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What is a contrasting point between the Assess Procedural Controls and Assess Technical
Controls business objectives?
A. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows provision of capacity to assess security
compliance of assets against a set ofstandards, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business
objective uses the CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine external threats.
B. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine
external threats, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business objective uses Response
Assessment
Module to control built-in content and mandates.
C. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows importing custom data into CCS Policy
Manager, whereas the Assess TechnicalControls business objective uses Response Assessment
Module
to control built-in content and mandates.
D. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses the Response Assessment Module to
control
built-in content and mandates, whereasthe Assess Technical Controls business objective allows
provision
of capacity to assess security compliance of assets against a set ofstandards.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components must be installed to help
achieve the business objective: Plan for internal and external audits.? (Select two.)
A. CCS Application Server
B. Data Loss Prevention Connector
C. CCS Agent
D. Response Assessment Module
E. CCS Manager
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 A partner responsible for installing a Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment
adds a domain user to the CCS Administrator role. The domain user needs to create new certificates
for multiple,
new CCS Manager systems; however when the user attempts to create a certificate, it fails.
What is a likely reason for the failure?
A. The certificate password has expired.
B. The user is also a member of the CCS User role.
C. The user account password should be the certificate password.
D. The user must be an administrator on the Application Server system.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What must be installed on a computer in order to export evaluation results using the context
menu?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Adobe Reader
D. ODBC
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the recommended initial size and auto growth rate for TempDB on the Reporting
Database Server in a very large scale Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment?
A. 5 GB - 10%
B. 5 GB - 20%
C. 20 GB - 10%
D. 20 GB - 20%
Answer: C

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NO.9 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment models designed to collect and evaluate
data from 2,000 assets should have two SQL Server systems: one to host the reporting database and
the other to host the production database.
What is the minimum recommended memory configuration for each SQL system?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 32 GB
Answer: A

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NO.10 How is the Assess Data Controls business objective met by the Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 11.0?
A. Data Loss Prevention determines data loss from hardware.
B. Data Loss Prevention scans the network for loss of data.
C. Data Loss Prevention analyzes data contamination.
D. Data Loss Prevention is an external data application.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which type of credentials must be configured if the asset in a data collection is part of a
Windows Domain?
A. Windows Domain credentials
B. Windows Domain Cache credentials
C. Windows Common credentials
D. Windows Collector credentials
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two functions of the Control Compliance Suite 11.0 (CCS) Directory? (Select two.)
A. It stores the asset data and user rights.
B. It manages the system scheduling and workflow.
C. It hosts the certificate authority for the CCS system.
D. It manages web-based dashboards.
E. It executes all standards-based jobs.
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 An organization has 5,000 assets that must be scanned weekly for the next calendar year using
standards containing 350 checks.
What is the approximate amount of Reporting Database disk space required for each standard?
A. 100 GB
B. 300 GB
C. 500 GB
D. 700 GB
Answer: B

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NO.14 During a fresh deployment of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0, the installer displays
a critical error at the completion of the product installation.
What is the recommended resolution for the failure?
A. use the repair option in add/remove programs
B. uninstall and re-install the product after rectifying the problem
C. get the latest operating system updates and rerun setup.exe
D. ensure the selected service account is a local system administrator
Answer: B

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NO.15 Computers hosting certain Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components should be
colocated on the same LAN segment.
Which group of CCS components must be topologically deployed together?
A. Application Server, Production Database, and CCS Manager Collector
B. Application Server, CCS Manager Load Balancer, and CCS Manager Collector
C. CCS Manager Collector, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
D. CCS Manager Load Balancer, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which feature allows temporary permissions that exempt an asset from following an
organizational
policy for a specific time period?
A. Exceptions
B. Exemptions
C. Allowances
D. Exclusions
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which platform is unsupported in message-based data collection?
A. Oracle
B. Exchange
C. NDS
D. Sybase
Answer: B

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NO.18 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.19 Data Collection jobs can be created from which area?
A. Manage > Queries
B. Manage > Agents
C. Manage > Standards
D. Manage > Control Points
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature allows users to view high-level
information graphically using a web browser?
A. Compliance Reports
B. Remediation Reports
C. Tiered Dashboards
D. Dynamic Dashboards
Answer: D

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A.response.setHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
B.response.addHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
C.response.setHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
D.response.addHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
E.response.addHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
F.response.setHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Place the code snippets onto the first line to form a directive to use a custom tag library in a JSP page.
Answer:

NO.3 Which HTTP method represents a request for information about the supported methods on an HTTP
server?
A.GET
B.INFO
C.HEAD
D.TRACE
E.OPTIONS
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which retrieves all cookies sent in a given HttpServletRequest request?
A.request.getCookies()
B.request.getAttributes()
C.request.getSession().getCookies()
D.request.getSession().getAttributes()
Answer: A

SUN certification   310-081   310-081

NO.5 Under what two circumstances is the setJspBody method NOT called in a tag class that implements the
SimpleTag interface? (Choose two.)
A.The tag is invoked without a body.
B.The doTag method throws an exception.
C.The element has the value empty.
D.The tag is called with the attribute skip-body=true.
Answer: AC

SUN   310-081 original questions   310-081

NO.6 A collection of products is stored in the ServletContext in an attribute called catalog.
Which JSTL code structure iterates over each product in the collection and prints out the names of the
products in an un-ordered list?
A.<ul>
<c:for var='product' items='${catalog}'>
<li><%= product.getName() %></li>
</c:for>
</ul>
B.<ul>
<c:for id='product' collection='${catalog}'>
<li><%= product.getName() %></li>
</c:for>
</ul>
C.<ul>
<c:forEach var='product' items='${catalog}'>
<li><%= product.getName() %></li>
</c:forEach>
</ul>
D.<ul>
<c:forEach id='product' collection='${catalog}'>
<li><%= product.getName() %></li>
</c:forEach>
</ul>
Answer: C

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NO.7 For a given ServletResponse response, which two retrieve an object for writing text data? (Choose
two.)
A.response.getWriter()
B.response.getOutputStream()
C.response.getOutputWriter()
D.response.getWriter().getOutputStream()
E.response.getWriter(Writer.OUTPUT_TEXT)
lled with the attribute skip-body=true.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 For a given ServletResponse response, which retrieves an object for writing binary data?
A.response.getWriter()
B.response.getOutputStream()
C.response.getOutputWriter()
D.response.getWriter().getOutputStream()
E.response.getWriter(Writer.OUTPUT_BINARY)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Place the code snippets in the proper order to construct the JSP code to include dynamic content into
a JSP page at request-time.
Answer:

NO.10 Given a servlet mapped to /control, place the correct URI segment returned as a String on the
corresponding HttpServletRequest method call for the URI: /myapp/control/processorder.

NO.11 Given a header in an HTTP request:
X-Retries: 4
Which two retrieve the value of the header from a given ServletRequest request? (Choose two.)
A.request.getHeader("X-Retries")
B.request.getIntHeader("X-Retries")
C.request.getRequestHeader("X-Retries")
D.request.getHeaders("X-Retries").get(0)
E.request.getRequestHeaders("X-Retries").get(0)
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which HTTP method has the characteristic that multiple identical requests may produce side effects
beyond those of a single request?
A.PUT
B.GET
C.INFO
D.POST
E.HEAD
F.TRACE
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given an HttpServletRequest request and HttpServletResponse response, which sets a cookie
"username" with the value "joe" in a servlet?
A.request.addCookie("username", "joe")
B.request.setCookie("username", "joe")
C.response.addCookie("username", "joe")
D.request.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
E.request.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
F.response.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
G.response.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
Answer: F

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NO.14 Given:
Which code snippet inserted at line 12 causes the client to redirect to http://www.example.com?
A.response.sendRedirect("http://www.example.com");
B.response.sendRedirect(new URL("http://www.example.com"));
C.RequestDispatcher rd =
getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(
"http://www.example.com");
rd.forward(request, response);
D.RequestDispatcher rd =
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three are valid URL mappings to a servlet in a web deployment descriptor? (Choose three.)
A.*/*
B./*.do
C.MyServlet
D./MyServlet
E./MyServlet/*
F.MyServlet/*.jsp
Answer: BDE

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NO.16 Place the events in the order they occur.
Answer:

NO.17 Which two are valid values for the <transport-guarantee> element inside a <security-constraint>
element of a web application deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A.NULL
B.SECURE
C.INTEGRAL
D.ENCRYPTED
E.CONFIDENTIAL
Answer: CE

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NO.18 Which two prevent a servlet from handling requests? (Choose two.)
A.The servlet's init method returns a non-zero status.
B.The servlet's init method throws a ServletException.
C.The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content length to 0.
D.The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content type to null.
E.The servlet's init method does NOT return within a time period defined by the servlet container.
Answer: BE

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NO.19 Given a servlet OrderServlet mapped to processorder, and a form declaration in HTML:
What OrderServlet method is invoked as a result of this form submission?
A.doGet
B.doPut
C.doPost
D.doTrace
E.doSubmit
Answer: A

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NO.20 Place the XML elements in the web application deployment descriptor solution to configure a servlet
context event listener named com.example.MyListener.
Answer:

NO.21 A developer wants to use EL to invoke a function using ${my:bloof("foof")}.
Which is always true?
A.The method invoked by this function must be static.
B.The function class must implement the Function interface.
C.The expression is NOT a valid EL expression for invoking a function.
D.The function must be declared in a web.xml file using the <function> element.
E.The function class must have a method with the signature:
Answer: A

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NO.22 Given a request from mybox.example.com, with an IP address of 10.0.1.11 on port 33086, place the
appropriate ServletRequest methods onto their corresponding return values.

NO.23 Which two HTTP methods are used to process form data in a servlet? (Choose two.)
A.doGet
B.doPut
C.doPost
D.doTrace
E.doSubmit
F.doProcess
Answer: AC

SUN   310-081 practice test   310-081   310-081

NO.24 Given an HttpServletRequest request, which retrieves an object of type Account with an ID of
"account"?
A.Account account = request.getResource("account");
B.Account account = request.getAttribute("account");
C.Account account = request.getParameter("account");
D.Account account = (Account)request.getResource("account");
E.Account account = (Account)request.getAttribute("account");
F.Account account = (Account)request.getParameter("account");
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which two are characteristics of the Intercepting Filter pattern? (Choose two.)
A.It provides centralized request handling for incoming requests.
B.It forces resource authentication to be distributed across web components.
C.It reduces coupling between presentation-tier clients and underlying business services.
D.It can be added and removed unobtrusively, without requiring changes to existing code.
E.It allows preprocessing and postprocessing on the incoming requests and outgoing responses.
Answer: DE

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NO.26 Given:
Which retrieves the binary input stream on line 13?
A.request.getWriter();
B.request.getReader();
C.request.getInputStream();
D.request.getResourceAsStream();
E.request.getResourceAsStream(ServletRequest.REQUEST);
Answer: C

SUN   310-081 braindump   310-081 original questions

NO.27 A web resource called foo.jsp requires two request parameters (P1 and P2). Construct the JSP code
to forward to the foo.jsp resource.
Answer:

NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement, inserted at line 11, retrieves the text from the second text field?
A.second = request.getParameter("foo");
B.second = request.getParameter("foo", 1);
C.second = request.getParameter("foo", 2);
D.second = request.getParameters("foo")[1];
E.second = request.getParameterValues("foo")[1];
Answer: E

SUN   310-081   310-081 study guide

NO.29 Given:
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.The foo initialization parameter CANNOT be set programmatically.
B.Compilation fails because getInitParameter returns type Object.
C.The foo initialization parameter is NOT a servlet initialization parameter.
D.Compilation fails because ServletContext does NOT have a getInitParameter method.
E.The foo parameter must be defined within the <servlet> element of the deployment descriptor.
F.The foo initialization parameter can also be retrieved using getServletConfig().getInitParameter("foo").
Answer: AC

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NO.30 Given the definition of MyObject and that an instance of MyObject is bound as a session attribute:
Which is true?
A.Only a single instance of MyObject may exist within a session.
B.The unbound method of the MyObject instance is called when the session to which it is bound times
out.
C.The com.example.MyObject must be declared as a servlet event listener in the web application
deployment descriptor.
D.The valueUnbound method of the MyObject instance is called when the session to which it is bound
times out.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two are characteristics of an RDBMS? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE provides a cross-platform RDBMS.
B.An RDBMS represents data using two-dimensional tables.
C.An RDBMS represents data using three-dimensional tables.
D.Business-tier applications use session beans to represent rows in an RDBMS.
E.Java technologies provide capabilities for connecting a legacy RDBMS to a web application.
Correct:B E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.2 Which two are valid representations of operations in UML? (Choose two.)
A.- op(p : P) : P
B.+ int op(int param)
C.* op(param : int) : int
D.+ op(param : int) : int
E.public void op(int param)
Correct:A D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. Which is an abstract class?
A.Cat
B.Dog
C.Rabbit
D.Mouse
Correct:D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button. Which class correctly implements the interface Flyer?
A.Lark
B.Airplane
C.Penguin
D.Helicopter
Correct:B

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.Every Flurb contains a reference to itself.
B.Every Flurb is associated with exactly one Flurb.
C.There can only be one instance of the Flurb class.
D.There must always be an even number of Flurb instances.
E.A Flurb can be associated with itself, but it also could be associated with a different Flurb.
Correct:B E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.6 What is the definition of the acronym SQL?
A.Special Query Language
B.System Query Language
C.Special Queue Language
D.System Queue Language
E.Structured Query Language
F.Structured Queue Language
Correct:E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.7 What is the purpose of JNDI?
A.to parse XML documents
B.to access native code from a Java application
C.to register Java Web Start applications with a web server
D.to access various directory services using a single interface
Correct:D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.8 A Java programmer wants to develop a small application to run on mobile phones. Which Java
edition (or editions) are required to develop the application?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.9 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.SQL commands cannot be contained in servlets.
B.SQL is a web services technology used to parse large XML files.
C.SQL technology is used to access JMS queues from within EJB technology.
D.SQL commands can be written in applications that use NO Java technologies.
E.SQL allows you to modify multiple rows in a table with a single command.
Correct:D E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.10 Which is true?
A.All JDBC drivers are pure Java.
B.The JDBC API is included in J2SE.
C.The JDBC API is an extension of the ODBC API.
D.JDBC is used to connect to MOM (Message-Oriented Middleware) products.
Correct:B

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. Which is the class name?
A.eat
B.age
C.Dog
D.bark
E.name
Correct:C

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.12 A Java programmer wants to develop a browser-based multitier application for a large bank.
Which Java edition (or editions) should be used to develop this system?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.13 Which is true about RMI?
A.RMI is used to create thin web clients.
B.RMI allows objects to be sent from one computer to another.
C.RMI is the Java API used for executing queries on a database.
D.RMI is used to develop applications for wireless mobile devices.
E.RMI is the transport protocol used by web servers and browsers.
Correct:B

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is valid for a Zippy to have no associated Dippy.
B.It is valid for a Dippy to have no associated Zippy.
C.Every Zippy must be associated with exactly one Dippy.
D.Every Dippy must be associated with exactly one Zippy.
E.Every Dippy must be associated with at least one Zippy.
F.It is valid for a Zippy to be associated with more than one Dippy.
Correct:A E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.15 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE includes the MIDP API.
B.J2EE application developers need J2SE.
C.J2EE includes servlet APIs and EJB APIs.
D.J2EE applications depend on web servers.
E.J2EE runs on consumer and embedded devices.
Correct:B C

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.16 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.The diagram shows a composition relation.
B.The diagram does NOT show a composition relation.
C.A Foo instance has access to the Bar with which it is associated.
D.A Bar instance has access to the Foo with which it is associated.
E.It cannot be determined from the diagram whether instances of Foo and Bar will have access to each
other.
Correct:B D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.17 Which three about JMS are true? (Choose three.)
A.JMS is the acronym for Java Mail Service.
B.JMS supports an event-oriented approach to message reception.
C.JMS supports both synchronous and asynchronous message passing.
D.JMS does NOT depend on MOM (Messaging-Oriented Middleware) products.
E.JMS provides a common way for Java programs to access an enterprise messaging system's
messages.
Correct:B C E

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.18 Which is true?
A.A J2SE program can create no more than 10 concurrent threads.
B.The Java threading model provides equal processor time to all threads.
C.All threads created by a given Java program share the same invocation stack.
D.Threading allows GUI applications to perform lengthy calculations and respond to user events at the
same time.
Correct:D

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.19 Which statement about threading in Java is false?
A.A thread is a special type of method.
B.The synchronized keyword is used to lock objects.
C.A thread whose execution has completed is no longer runnable.
D.Threads waiting to be executed are generally chosen for execution based on priority.
Correct:A

SUN   310-019   310-019 exam dumps

NO.20 Which statement is true?
A.The JMS API is located in the java.jms package.
B.JMS provides interfaces to naming and directory services.
C.JMS enables an application to provide flexible, asynchronous data exchange.
D.JMS enables an application to provide tightly coupled, distributed communication.
Correct:C

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