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NO.1 KillTest is concerned that a denial-of-service (DoS) attack may affect her VPN
Communities. She decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jack needs to
minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protectdion.
Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Mrs. Bill?
A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE
DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless"
B. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS
protection from unidentified soruce to "Puzzles"
C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles".
D. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS
protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless".
E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None".
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can a Security Administator adjust the unit of measurement (bps, Kbps or
Bps), for Check Point QoS bandwidth?
A. Global Properties
B. QoS Class objects
C. Check Point gateway object properties
D. $CPDIR/conf/qos_props.pf
E. Advanced Action options in each QoS rule.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to
one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify
the connection is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of
available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Low Latency Queing
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315

NO.5 Exhibit:
KillTest tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. KillTest sees
the screen displayed in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. Jack must enable directional_match(true) in the object_5_0.c file on SmartCenter server.
B. Jack must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Jack must enable a dynamic-routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315 test questions

NO.7 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

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NO.10 KillTest is the Security Administrator for KillTest .com. KillTest .com FTP
servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP
servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP Servers is not an option this time.
Which of the following options will allow KillTest to control which FTP
commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. Global Properties->Security Server ->Security Server->Allowed FTP Commands
B. SmartDefense->Application Intelligence->FTP Security Server
C. Rule Base->Action Field->Properties
D. Web Intelligence->Application Layer->FTP Settings
E. FTP Service Object->Advanced->Blocked FTP Commands
Answer: B

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NO.11 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.
Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2
exchange occurs?
A. Phase 3 Key Revocation
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. MD5 Hash Completion
D. SH1 Hash Completion
E. DES Key Reset
Answer: B

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NO.14 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

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NO.15 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VNP-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlatform NGX R60
D. SVN Founation
E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGX R60
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at
Version VPN-1 NG with application Intelligence R55.
You must upgrade two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Perform an advanced upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN.1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities
Answer: E

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NO.18 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323
protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP
Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.19 Exhibit:
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster,
you plan to use three machines with the configurations displayed in the exhibit.
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, al cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPSO 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 8.0
E. MacOS X
Answer: A

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Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.3 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.12 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.14 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.15 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.16 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-915.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71 Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 312 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view
of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve
that?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using ClusterXl in load sharing, what method is used be default?
A. IPs, SPIs
B. IPs, Ports, SPIs
C. IPs
D. IPs, Ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP, etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which at the followingcommands showsfull synchronization status?
A. cphaprob-ilist.
B. fw ctliflist
C. Fw hastat
D. cphaprob aif
Answer: A

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NO.5 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicagousing Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicagois not
detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and
determine how Mattcorrectsthe problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-ChicagoSecurity Gateway to theChicago_Profile.
B. Matt should theChicago_Profile to useProtect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create theChicago_Profile and select Activeprotections manually instead of per
theIPSPolicy.
D. Mattshouldactivatethe Chicago_Profileasitis currently notactivated.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Whichof theft flowing is TRUE concerning unnumberedVPNTunnelInterfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTTs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remoteIPaddresses are configured
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback
D. VTIs are only supported on the IPSO Operating System
Answer: B

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NO.7 John isconfiguring anew R17 Gateway cluster but he cannot configurethecluster asThird Party IP
Clusteringin Gateway Cluster Properties:
What s happening?
A. Johnis not using thirdparty hardware asIP Clustering ispart of Check Point sIPAppliance.
B. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
C. ClusterXLneeds to be unsetected to permit 3nd party clustering configuration.
D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration.Machines arenot synchronizer. What happens to
connections on failover?
A. It is not possible to configure High Availabilitythat is not synchronized.
B. B. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished.
C. Connection cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: B

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NO.10 YoujustupgradedtoR71 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want toenable all critical protections
while keeping the rate of false positively verylow.How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is basedon policies, but it has no abilitytocalculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of falsepositives.
B. This can t be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes ahigh rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the abilitytoactivate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense,this can be achieved by activating all the criticalchecks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member
fails.
B. The stare of connection using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so there
connections cannot be synchronized.
C. Only cluster members running on me same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly
working synchronization.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If
you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is
needed.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel instances.
C. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R71.
D. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways
sglondon, sgla, andsgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this
possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques likeusing escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands.It is also possible that thereare entry points not shown in the network layout, like
rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network without
anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates
and well-turned anomaly algorithms.Even if this is accomplished, notechnology can offer 100 %
protection.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.15 To change the default port of the Management Portal,
A. Editthe masters.conffileon the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin.conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initializeSIC.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.17 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.18 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?
A. The Smartview Monitor
B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server
C. The Security Management server or CMA
D. They are fetched locally from the individual device
Answer: C

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NO.19 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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NO.20 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access inSmart
Dashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.21 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setaync 0
B. fw ctl syncsatat stop
C. fw ctl syncstat off
D. fw ctl setsync off
Answer: D

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NO.22 To force clients to use integritySecurity Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the
Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.23 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down.What will you check?
A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down)
B. Fw ctl debug m cluster + forward(forwarding layer debug)
C. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic)
D. fw ctlpstat (check sync)
Answer: A

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NO.24 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security
Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is saved.
B. The Security Policy is installed.
C. The user database is installed.
D. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
Answer: A

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NO.25 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall.?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fwkernel
D. fwver -k
Answer: D

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NO.26 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.27 A customer calls saying that a load-sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is
notSYN.Completethe followingsentence. I will recommend:
A. Change the load on each member.
B. configuring flush and ack
C. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
D. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
Answer: D

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NO.28 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST:
A. Create aninternal userin the admin portal.
B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate fromSmart Dashboard
D. Store the clientcertificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following is the default port few Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-315.75
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Expert R75)
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Total Q&A: 629 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.3 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What
command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Answer: A

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NO.5 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.6 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40,
and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is
HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Answer: D

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NO.7 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.8 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.9 How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: B

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NO.10 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.1 When creating a new Calendar within the Unicenter Explorer, what is the default
Time increment?
A. 5 Minutes
B. 15 Minutes
C. 10 Minutes
D. 12 Minutes
Answer: B

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NO.2 CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 All message records and message actions are stored in the Event Management
database. When you add, modify, or delete message records and message actions,
you are not changing active policy; you are simply updating the database. What is
the default logical name for this database?
A. caioprdb
B. caioprlog
C. caoprdmn process
D. opreload
Answer: A

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NO.5 To access a remote enterprise manager through the Unicenter explorer the user
must specify what type of Userid?
A. The MS SQL server system administrator userid, 'sa'
B. The COR userid and password
C. An operating system userid that allows login to the remote system.
D. The caunint userid.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?
A. Standard
B. Default
C. MAIN
D. BASE
Answer: D

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NO.7 What command directs Event Management to refresh the active Message Record
and Message Action lists immediately with the definitions stored in the Event
Management database?
A. cawto
B. clean_sadmin
C. opreload
D. resetdsm
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. CPUTNG
C. POSTCPU
D. PRECPU
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Agent
Answer: B

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NO.10 When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what
network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D

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NO.11 What are the Message Records and Action policies referred to after they are loaded
into physical memory?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Decision Support Binary
C. Distributed Services Bus
D. Event Console
Answer: B

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NO.12 What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the
Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which Left Pane option is used to create a new Calendar inside the Unicenter
Explorer?
A. Topology
B. Tools
C. Properties
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: D

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NO.14 SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D

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NO.15 The opreload process reads the policy stored in the Event Management database
and creates two copies of the Decision Support Binary. One is placed in memory and
the other is stored on the disk. What is the default name of the DSB copy stored on
the disk?
A. caioprdb
B. caopr.dsb
C. caoprdmn process
D. caoprlog process
Answer: B

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NO.16 What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B

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NO.17 Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through
which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B

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NO.18 The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application
resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.19 What component is selected to install the Report Builder and Report
Administrator?
A. Unicenter Explorer
B. Performance Management
C. Unicenter Reports
D. Software Development Kit
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: ACF

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Exam Name: CA (CA Spectrum Infrastructure Manager r9)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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NO.2 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When you need to customize an existing subview:
A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-200
Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Administrator Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are the components of a notification rule? (Choose three)
A. Services
B. Contacts
C. Constraints
D. Condition macro
E. Message template
Answer: B,D,E

CA   CAT-200   CAT-200

NO.2 Each CA Service Desk role record MUST be configured with:
A. One form group
B. One service type
C. Three work shifts,
D. Two data partitions.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Level 1 CA Service Desk Analysts can use the CA Service Desk Quick Profile page to:
A. Create templates
B. Search knowledge documents for relevant information
C. Search for information about the end user during a support call.
D. Access the end user's computer and resolve the problem during the call.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On which tab can you find Incidents related to a Problem?
A. Event Log tab
B. Knowledge tab
C. Attachments tab
D. Attached Incidents tab
Answer: D

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NO.5 For the Level 2 Analyst role, which additional My Queue items can you view on the Scoreboard?
(Choose two)
A. My Incidents
B. My Requests
C. My Problems
D. My Change Orders
Answer: C,D

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