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Exam Code: ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1
Exam Name: ASTQB (ISTQB Advanced Level Test manager Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

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NO.4 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.7 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: IBMSPSSMBPDA
Exam Name: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler - Business Partner Data Analyst Associate Exam)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A prison system has historical data on prison inmates and wants to find what factors are
related to recidivism (return to prison). What type of model would be used?
A. Segmentation model
B. Classification model
C. Association model
D. Anomaly model
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A classification model is tested by applying it to test data with known target values and comparing
the predicted values with the known values.
The test data must be compatible with the data used to build the model and must be prepared in
the same way that the build data was prepared. Typically the build data and test data come from
the same historical data set. A percentage of the records is used to build the model; the remaining
records are used to test the model.
Test metrics are used to assess how accurately the model predicts the known values. If the model
performs well and meets the business requirements, it can then be applied to new data to predict
the future.

NO.2 The matrix model is used to examine the relationship between the categorical fields.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 System undefined values ($null$) are automatically defined as blank (missing) values in IBM
SPSS Modeler.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProcess OutputNodes.pdf - p.122

NO.4 Which of the following types of nodes will have data flowing both in and out, when used in a
stream?
A. Record Ops
B. Graphs
C. Export
D. Process
Answer: D

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Explanation:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p. 413 see process supernodes)

NO.5 Which node can be used to easily generate a field that divides the data into subsamples for
the training and testing stages of modeling?
A. Sample
B. Filler
C. Balance
D. Partition
Answer: D

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Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p.176.

NO.6 Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?
A. Var. File
B. Data Collection
C. Fixed File
D. Statistics File
Answer: A

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Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p.18

NO.7 Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?
A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of other Travel fields.
B. No operation will be performed because the express is invalid.
C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcctEst and each of the travel fields.
D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @ FIELD value.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The optional binning method in the Binning node uses a Supervisor field to determine the
binning cut points.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf

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Exam Code: CCD-470
Exam Name: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCDH))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block
location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data
responds directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads
the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the
DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the
NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer’s
reduce
method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren’t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those
keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in
no predictable order
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are running a job that will process a single InputSplit on a cluster which has no other jobs
currently running. Each node has an equal number of open Map slots. On which node will Hadoop
first attempt to run the Map task?
A. The node with the most memory
B. The node with the lowest system load
C. The node on which this InputSplit is stored
D. The node with the most free local disk space
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You’ve decided
to
put this information in a text file, place that file into the DistributedCache and read it in your
Mapper before any records are processed.
Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and
populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Answer: D

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NO.6 What happens in a MapReduce job when you set the number of reducers to zero?
A. No reducer executes, but the mappers generate no output.
B. No reducer executes, and the output of each mapper is written to a separate file in HDFS.
C. No reducer executes, but the outputs of all the mappers are gathered together and written to a
single file in HDFS.
D. Setting the number of reducers to zero is invalid, and an exception is thrown.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Identify the tool best suited to import a portion of a relational database every day as files into
HDFS, and generate Java classes to interact with that imported data?
A. Oozie
B. Flume
C. Pig
D. Hue
E. Hive
F. Sqoop
G. fuse-dfs
Answer: F

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Exam Code: PEGACMBB
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified Methodology Black Belt Exam )
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided into
_____ which are divided into _____ which are made up of _____. (Choose one)
A. Use cases, slivers, projects
B. Projects, use cases, slivers
C. Use cases, projects, slivers
D. Projects, slivers, use cases
Answer: D

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NO.2 The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 The following processes/tools are used in the Inception phase EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Project Plan Template
B. Methodology Alignment Workshop
C. Project Management Framework
D. Test Management Framework
Answer: D

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NO.4 From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.5 In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training) begin?
(Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 All of the following are benefits realized from the SmartBPM Methodology EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Short release cycles ensure maximum value is obtained along the way
B. Strict project management planning and measurement using tollgate milestones
C. Users provide higher quality requirements for subsequent releases after first-hand experience
D. Planning for multiple releases establishes a framework that ensures value gain in the future
Answer: B

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NO.7 The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the Application
Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received the
expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and other
project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: PEGACSSA_v6.2
Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 209 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

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NO.2 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

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NO.7 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

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NO.9 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM-001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are
currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and
resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
1.You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test
process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are
developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them
toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing
inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.

NO.5 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.9 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM_Syll2012
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test
condition EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11 The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed
to get the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from
the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user
Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the
requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.
Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the
REQSEL-4 requirement?
K3 2 credits
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are
displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles"
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following are the requirements identified as "critical":
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the
available credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the
"select" and "purchase" pages going back to the "browse" page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as "critical":
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than
10 sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
-a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
-a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
-a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional
off-theshelf systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR
(Interactive Voice Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that
you have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been
unsystematic and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall
integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate
this risk.
Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform
all of them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and
then a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test
and an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describing the consequences of specifying test conditions
at a detailed level is NOT true?
K2 1 credit
A. In an environment where the test basis is continuously changing, it is recommended to specify
test conditions at a detailed level in order to achieve a better maintainability
B. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can be effective when no formal
requirements or other development work products are available
C. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can require the implementation of an
adequate level of formality across the team
D. For system testing, the specification of test conditions at a detailed level, carried out early in the
project as soon as the test basis is established, can contribute to defect prevention
Answer: A

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NO.5 The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at
least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: "C" (critical defect) and "NC" (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
K2 1 credit
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the
defect tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the
defect tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to
get the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the
following test conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles
from the user
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 Assume you are the Test Manager for a new software release of an e-commerce application.
The server farm consists of six servers providing different capabilities. Each capability is provided
through a set of web services.
The requirements specification document contains several SLAs
(Service Level Agreements) like the following:
SLA-001: 99.5 percent of all transactions shall have a response time less than five seconds under a
load of up-to 5000 concurrent users
The main objective is to assure that all the SLAs specified in the requirements specification
document will be met before system release. You decide to apply a risk-based testing strategy and
an early risk analysis confirms that performance is high risk. You can count on a well-written
requirements specification and on a model of the system behavior under various load levels
produced by the system architect.
Which of the following test activities would you expect to be the less important ones to achieve the
test objectives in this scenario?
K4 3 credits
A. Perform unit performance testing for each single web service
B. Monitor the SLAs after the system has been released into the production environment
C. Perform system performance testing, consisting of several performance testing sessions, to verify
if all the SLAs have been met
D. Perform static performance testing by reviewing the architectural model of the system under
various load levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as "lessons learned"?
K2 1 credit
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service
desk team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and
problems of future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software
product released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.2 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.3 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.5 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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Exam Code: S90-02A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Concepts)
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NO.1 XML can be used to structure data passed between REST services, but REST introduces rules that limit
the extent to which XML elements and attributes can be nested.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs within the underlying service logic.
B. Service activities represent design-time message exchanges that are established between
SOAP-based Web services and defined as part of the operation definition within the WSDL definition.
C. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between services.
D. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between complex and simple XML Schema
types.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When two compatible SOAP-based Web services need to exchange an XML document that is
compliant with the XML schema shared by both services, then:
A. A data model transformation technology, such as XSLT, must be used to enable the data exchange.
B. A new XML schema must be created to overcome the disparity between how each service defines the
data model for the XML document.
C. A WS-Policy definition must be created to establish rules that address any differences in the XML
document exchange.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The XML language is expressed through the use of:
A. elements or tags
B. databases or repositories
C. services or components
D. service compositions or orchestrations
Answer: A

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NO.5 WS-Addressing is most commonly associated with __________________ functionality.
A. process management
B. policy enforcement
C. message routing
D. choreography
Answer: C

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NO.6 XML schemas are comparable to database records. Therefore, XML documents that are based on
XML schemas are comparable to database data models.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 A SOAP message is an XML document that is comprised of a set of pre-defined parts. Which of the
following are parts that can be found in a SOAP message?
A. Envelope
B. Body
C. Header
D. Footer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Identify what is wrong with the following statement: "I have a single Calculator component that provides
basic math functions. I'm exposing this component as a component-based service for internal service
consumers that are also component-based. I'm exposing this component as a SOAP-based Web service
for internal and external service consumers that support SOAP messaging. I'm also exposing this
component as a REST service for external service consumers that prefer to access its functions via HTTP
methods. I'm also exposing this component as a service agent for service consumers that support explicit
invocation via a service contract."
A. A single component cannot be exposed as a component-based service, a SOAP-based Web service
and a REST service at the same time.
B. SOAP-based Web service consumer programs cannot be both internally and externally located.
C. The uniform contract required by REST services does not support the use of HTTP methods.
D. Service agents are event-driven and are therefore not explicitly invoked via a service contract.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are associated with the functionality provided by a typical enterprise service
bus?
A. reliable message delivery
B. intermediate message routing
C. temporary storage of messages in queues
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important
technology specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for SOAP-based Web services. Instead, they
use a uniform contract.
B. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for REST services. Instead, they use a
common uniform contract.
C. Components provide published contracts, but when building services as components, components
must use a uniform contract instead.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: B

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NO.12 If Service B is invoked by Service A and then Service B invokes Service C and all of this happens as
part of the same service activity, then Service B would be considered:
A. an intermediary
B. a service agent
C. an ultimate receiver
D. an initial sender
Answer: A

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NO.13 When designing REST services within a given domain, you establish __________________ that are
represented by unique identifiers, usually in the format of __________________.
A. resources, HTTPs/HTTPSs
B. mashups, HTTPs/HTTPSs
C. resources, URLs/URIs
D. mashups, URLs/URIs
Answer: C

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NO.14 Data model transformation is a core service function that can be performed by proven technologies
that have been around for years. Therefore, it is recommended that you look for opportunities to apply this
technology wherever possible, especially in larger, more complex service compositions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 A __________________ establishes a common access point generally based on HTTP methods used
by __________________.
A. WSDL definition, SOAP-based Web service
B. uniform contract, REST services
C. XML schemas, components
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.16 A SOAP-based Web service is required to transmit an XML-based invoice document to a REST
service. However, the SOAP-based Web service is designed to represent invoice data using an XML
schema that is different from the XML schema used within the REST service. How can the disparity
between the XML schemas, used by these two services, be overcome so that they can exchange the
invoice document?
A. A layer of data format transformation logic needs to be introduced based on mashup technologies,
such as DTD and WS-Transform.
B. A layer of protocol transformation logic needs to be introduced based on Web technologies, such as
HTTP and FTP.
C. A layer of data model transformation logic needs to be introduced, based on XML technologies, such
as XSLT.
D. There is no technique or technology for overcoming differences between XML schemas.
Answer: C

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NO.17 I would like to extend my WSDL definition to include a programmatically consumable statement that
communicates that upon receiving a message the service will add an entry to an event log. Which
technology should I use?
A. Mashup
B. XSLT
C. REST
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is true?
A. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different data models (that represent the same business document) to communicate with each
other.
B. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different communication protocols to communicate with each other.
C. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services to
communicate even though they use different communication protocols and different data models (that
represent the same business document).
D. All of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes reliability levels associated with databases required to persist
state data.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the issuance and delivery of positive and negative
acknowledgement messages.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes SOAP headers related to atomic transactions with rollback
features.
D. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the expression of service composition logic, but only for
SOAP-based Web services.
Answer: B

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NO.20 SOAP-based Web services can be designed for use within traditional RPC-style distributed solutions
or for use in service-oriented solutions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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